Legal · US
225,069 document(s) from the ingested source(s); showing
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A period of disability based on blindness.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 20
If we find that you are blind and you meet the insured status requirement, we may establish a period of disability for you regardless of whether you can do substantial gainful activity. A period of disability protects your earnings record under Social Security so that the time you are disabled will not count against you in determining whether you will have worked long enough to qualify for benefits and the amount of your benefits. However, you will not necessarily be entitled to receive disability insurance cash benefits even though you are blind. If you are a blind person under age 55, you must be unable to do any substantial gainful activity in order to be paid disability insurance cash benefits.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A retail or service establishment must be open to general public.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 29
The location of the retail or service establishment, whether in an industrial plant, an office building, a railroad depot, or a government park, etc., will make no difference in the application of the exemption and such an establishment will be exempt if it meets the tests of the exemption. Generally, however, an establishment, wherever located, will not be considered a retail or service establishment within the meaning of the Act, if it is not ordinarily available to the general consuming public. An establishment, however, does not have to be actually frequented by the general public in the sense that the public must actually visit it and make purchases of goods or services on the premises in order to be considered as available and open to the general public. A refrigerator repair service shop, for example, is available and open to the general public even if it receives all its orders on the telephone and performs all of its repair services on the premises of its customers.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A validation study.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) Decontaminate the following prepared sample surfaces using the selected testing parameters and experimental conditions. Take a standard wipe sample of the decontaminated surface. (1) At least one uncontaminated surface. The surface levels of PCBs on the uncontaminated surface must be <1 µg/100 cm (2) At least seven contaminated surfaces. (b)(1) Select applicable method(s) from the following list to extract PCBs and determine the PCB concentration from the standard wipe sample collection medium: SW-846 Method 3540C, Method 3550C, Method 3541, Method (2) Report all validation study surface sample concentrations on the basis of micrograms of PCBs per 100 cm (c) Following completion of the validation study, measurements from the contaminated surfaces must have an arithmetic mean of ≤10 µg/100 cm
official document
· source cfr-2024
A vessel built to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1974, as amended, requirements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 46
A vessel built to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1974, as amended, is considered to be in compliance with this part.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A vessel with a load line.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 46
A vessel with a valid load line certificate issued in accordance with subchapter E of this chapter may be deemed in compliance with the requirements of subparts B and C of this part.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A&TBCB action on appeals.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 36
(a) The General Counsel must make one of the following legal determinations in connection with every appeal from the initial denial of a request for an existing, located record: (1) The record must be disclosed; (2) The record must not be disclosed because a statute or a provision of this part so requires; or (3) The record is exempt from mandatory disclosure but legally may be disclosed as a matter of agency discretion. (b) Whenever the General Counsel has determined under paragraph (a)(3) of this section that a record is exempt from mandatory disclosure but legally may be disclosed, the matter must be referred to the Executive Director. If the Executive Director determines that an important purpose would be served by withholding the record, the General Counsel shall issue a determination denying the appeal. If the Executive Director determines that no important purpose would be served by withholding the record, the General Counsel must disclose the record. (c) The General Counsel may delegate his or her authority under this section to any other attorney employed by the A&TBCB in connection (d) A determination denying an appeal from an initial denial must— (1) Be in writing; (2) State which of the exemptions in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) apply to each requested existing record; (3) State the reason(s) for denial of the appeal; (4) State the name and position of each A&TBCB officer or employee who directed that the appeal be denied; and (5) State that the person whose request was denied
official document
· source cfr-2024
A&TBCB action on requests.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 36
(a) The FOIA Officer is delegated the authority to issue initial determinations concerning records which he or she believes are in the custody of a Board member, an employee of a member's agency, or an employee of a public member. When the FOIA Officer receives such a request, he or she shall forward it to the member, employee of a member agency, or employee of a public member whom the FOIA Officer believes to have custody of the records, requesting the records. The person to whom the request is forwarded shall, within three days of receipt of the FOIA Officer's request, either furnish the records requested to the FOIA Officer or inform the FOIA Officer of the time when they will be furnished. The FOIA Officer shall then determine whether or not to disclose the documents. For purposes of such requests and their processing under this subpart, the FOIA Officer is considered the office handling the requests. (b) Heads of staff offices are delegated the authority to issue initial determinations, other records which are in their respective custody. (c) Whenever an A&TBCB office receives a request forwarded by the FOIA Officer, the office should: (1) Take action under § 1120.26, if required, to obtain a better description of the records requested; (2) Locate the records as promptly as possible, or determine that: (i) The records are not known to exist; or (ii) They are located at another A&TBCB office; or (iii) They are located at another Federal agency and not possessed by the A&T
official document
· source cfr-2024
A&TBCB receipt of requests; responsibilities of Freedom of Information Officer.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 36
(a) Upon receipt of a written request, the Freedom of Information Officer must mark the request with the date of receipt and must attach to the request a control slip indicating the Request Identification Number and other pertinent administrative information. The Freedom of Information Officer must immediately forward the request and control slip to the A&TBCB office which the FOIA Officer believes to be responsible for maintaining the records requested. The Freedom of Information Officer must retain a full copy of the request and control slip and must monitor the handling of the request to ensure a timely response. (b) The Freedom of Information Officer must maintain a file concerning each request received. The file must contain a copy of the request, initial and appeal determinations, and other pertinent correspondence and records. (c) The Freedom of Information Officer must collect and maintain the information necessary to compile the reports required by 5 U.S.C. 552(d).
official document
· source cfr-2024
A-95 clearinghouse requirements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 36
Notice of intent to submit any application for UPARR funding must be forwarded by the applicant, no later than 60 days prior to submission of a grant application, to the State clearinghouse and appropriate metropolitan or areawide clearinghouses, in accordance with OMB Circular A-95 and Interior Department Manual part 511. If a jurisdiction wishes to compress the A-95 timetable, it must receive approval of the clearinghouse. Appropriate A-95 notifications must be submitted for all three types of UPARR grants at both preapplication and full application stages. Standard Form 424 is to be used for these notices unless otherwise specified by the clearinghouse. Comments from clearinghouses, if available, must be included with the preapplication. All A-95 comments will become part of the required application and proposal file which will be retained by NPS. A-95 requirements for Recovery Action Programs and grants are discussed in § 72.52.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A.I.D. Advisory Committee Management Officer.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 22
The Advisory Committee Management Officer is responsible to the Administrator for the establishment of uniform administrative guidelines and management controls which must be consistent with directives of the Director of the OMB under sections 7 and 10 of the Act.
official document
· source cfr-2024
A.I.D. Advisory Committee Representative.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 22
(a) For each advisory committee used by A.I.D., the Administrator designates an A.I.D., employee to serve as the A.I.D. Advisory Committee Representative. (b) The designated A.I.D. employee performs functions required by section 10 of the Act and assigned herein. Such functions include: (1) Calling, or giving advance approval to, advisory committee meetings; (2) Approving an agenda for each meeting; (3) Making recommendations on proposals to close meetings, or parts of meetings, to the public; and clearing such recommendation with the Advisory Committee Management Officer and the General Counsel for decisions by the Administrator; (4) Assuring that advance notices of each meeting (whether open or closed) are published in the (5) Assuring that open meetings are accessible to the public; (6) As specified by the Administrator, chairing or attending each meeting; (7) Determining the number of committee members necessary to be present at any meeting for the transaction of committee business; (8) Adjourning any meeting, whenever he determines adjournment to be in the public interest; (9) Assuring that minutes are kept of each advisory committee meeting and of the meetings of sub-committees and sub-groups, and that such minutes are certified for accuracy by the chairman or presiding officer of the committee; and (10) Assuring that, subject to section 552 of title 5 United States Code, the documents of the advisory committee are made available for public inspection and copying. (11)
official document
· source cfr-2024
A.I.D. approval of acceleration of notes.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 22
Without the prior approval of A.I.D., the Lender or any Assignee shall not accelerate any Eligible Notes held by it on account of the happening of an Event of Default other than failure to make a payment when due on the note.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ABT reports.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) If any of your engine families are certified using the ABT provisions of this subpart, you must send an end-of-year report within 90 days after the end of the model year and a final report within 270 days after the end of the model year. We may waive the requirement to send the end-of year report, as long as you send the final report on time. (b) Your end-of-year and final reports must include the following information for each engine family participating in the ABT program: (1) Engine family designation and averaging sets (whether switch, line-haul, or both). (2) The emission standards that would otherwise apply to the engine family. (3) The FEL for each pollutant. If you change the FEL after the start of production, identify the date that you started using the new FEL and/or give the engine identification number for the first engine covered by the new FEL. In this case, identify each applicable FEL and calculate the positive or negative emission credits as specified in § 1033.225. (4) The projected and actual U.S.-directed production volumes for the model year as described in § 1033.705. If you changed an FEL during the model year, identify the actual U.S.-directed production volume associated with each FEL. (5) Rated power for each locomotive configuration, and the average locomotive power weighted by U.S.-directed production volumes for the engine family. (6) Useful life. (7) Calculated positive or negative emission credits for the whole engine family. Identify any em
official document
· source cfr-2024
ABT reports.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) If you certify any of your engine families using the ABT provisions of this subpart, you must send us a final report by September 30 following the end of the model year. (b) Your report must include the following information for each engine family participating in the ABT program: (1) Engine-family designation and averaging set. (2) The emission standards that would otherwise apply to the engine family. (3) The FEL/FCL for each pollutant. If you change the FEL/FCL after the start of production, identify the date that you started using the new FEL/FCL and/or give the engine identification number for the first engine covered by the new FEL/FCL. In this case, identify each applicable FEL/FCL and calculate the positive or negative emission credits as specified in § 1036.225(f). (4) The projected and actual production volumes for calculating emission credits for the model year. If you changed an FEL/FCL during the model year, identify the actual production volume associated with each FEL/FCL. (5) The transient cycle conversion factor for each engine configuration as described in § 1036.705. (6) Useful life. (7) Calculated positive or negative emission credits for the whole engine family. Identify any emission credits that you traded, as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (c) Your report must include the following additional information: (1) Show that your net balance of emission credits from all your participating engine families in each averaging set in the applic
official document
· source cfr-2024
ABT reports.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) If you certify any vehicle families using the ABT provisions of this subpart, send us a final report by September 30 following the end of the model year. (b) Your report must include the following information for each vehicle family participating in the ABT program: (1) Vehicle-family and subfamily designations, and averaging set. (2) The regulatory subcategory and emission standards that would otherwise apply to the vehicle family. (3) The FEL for each pollutant. If you change the FEL after the start of production, identify the date that you started using the new FEL and/or give the vehicle identification number for the first vehicle covered by the new FEL. In this case, identify each applicable FEL and calculate the positive or negative emission credits as specified in § 1037.225. (4) The projected and actual production volumes for the model year for calculating emission credits. If you changed an FEL during the model year, identify the actual production volume associated with each FEL. (5) Useful life. (6) Calculated positive or negative emission credits for the whole vehicle family. Identify any emission credits that you traded, as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (7) If you have a negative credit balance for the averaging set in the given model year, specify whether the vehicle family (or certain subfamilies with the vehicle family) have a credit deficit for the year. Consider for example, a manufacturer with three vehicle families (“A”, “B”, and “C”) i
official document
· source cfr-2024
ABT reports.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) If any of your engine families are certified using the ABT provisions of this subpart, you must send an end-of-year report within 90 days after the end (b) Your end-of-year and final reports must include the following information for each engine family participating in the ABT program: (1) Engine-family designation and averaging set. (2) The emission standards that would otherwise apply to the engine family. (3) The FEL for each pollutant. If you change the FEL after the start of production, identify the date that you started using the new FEL and/or give the engine identification number for the first engine covered by the new FEL. In this case, identify each applicable FEL and calculate the positive or negative emission credits as specified in § 1042.225. (4) The projected and actual U.S.-directed production volumes for the model year, as described in § 1042.705(c). If you changed an FEL during the model year, identify the actual U.S.-directed production volume associated with each FEL. (5) Maximum engine power for each engine configuration, and the average engine power weighted by U.S.-directed production volumes for the engine family. (6) Useful life. (7) Calculated positive or negative emission credits for the whole engine family. Identify any emission credits that you traded, as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (c) Your end-of-year and final reports must include the following additional information: (1) Show that your net balance of emission credits fro
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered adjustable hospital bed.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered dynamometer.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered magnet.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered medical examination light.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered patient lift.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered photostimulator.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC-powered slitlamp biomicroscope.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AC17 air conditioning efficiency test procedure.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 40
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) For automatic systems, set the temperature control to 72 °F (22 °C). (2) For manual systems, select A/C mode, set the temperature to full cold and “maximum”, set airflow to “recirculate” (if so equipped), and select the highest fan setting. During the first idle period of the SC03 driving schedule (between 186 and 204 seconds), reduce the fan speed setting to nominally 50% of maximum fan speed, set airflow to “fresh air” (if so equipped), and adjust the temperature setting to target a temperature of 55 °F (13 °C) at the dashboard air outlet. Maintain these settings for the remainder of the test. You may rely on prior temperature measurements to determine the temperature setting; however, if the system is unable to meet the 55 °F (13 °C) target, you may instead set airflow to “fresh air” and temperature to full cold. If the vehicle is equipped with technology that defaults to recirculated air at ambient temperatures above 75 °F (22 °C), that technology should remain enabled throughout the test; this may mean not setting the airflow to “recirculate” at the start and not setting the airflow to “fresh air” during the first idle period of the SC03 driving schedule. Except as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, use good engineering judgment to apply the settings described in this paragraph (e)(2) equally throughout the vehicle if there are separate controls for different zones (such as rear air conditioning). (3) If the air conditioning system is
official document
· source cfr-2024
ACA expenditures.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 18
(a) (b) (1) A statement that the company is collecting an ACA unit charge, as calculated by the Commission, applicable to all the pipeline's sales and transportation rate schedules, (2) A statement that the ACA unit charge, as revised annually and posted on the Commission's Web site, is incorporated by reference into the company's tariff, (3) For companies with existing ACA clauses, a proposed effective date of the (4) A statement that the pipeline will not recover any annual charges recorded in FERC Account 928 in a proceeding under subpart D of this part. (c) Changes to the ACA unit charge must be filed annually, to reflect the annual charge unit rate authorized by the Commission each fiscal year.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ACC reserve account.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 24
(a) HUD may establish and maintain an unfunded reserve account for the PHA program from available budget authority under the consolidated ACC. This reserve is called the “ACC reserve account” (formerly “project reserve”). There is a single ACC reserve account for the PHA program. (b) The amount in the ACC reserve account is determined by HUD. HUD may approve payments for the PHA program, in accordance with the PHA's HUD-approved budget, from available amounts in the ACC reserve account.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ACC, housing assistance payments contract, and lease.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 24
(a) (b) (2) When a HUD-approved estimate of required payments under the ACC for a fiscal year exceeds the maximum annual commitment, and would cause the amount in the project account to be less than 40 percent of the maximum, HUD will, within a reasonable period of time, take such additional steps authorized by Section 8(c)(6) of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, as may be necessary, to assure that payments under the ACC will be adequate to cover increases in Contract Rents and decreases in Gross Family Contributions. (c) (d) (2) Any renewal or extension of the lease term for any unit must in no case extend beyond the remaining term of the HAP contract.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ACP test.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 26
(a) (A) The ACP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year is not more than the ACP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year multiplied by 1.25; or (B) The excess of the ACP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year over the ACP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year is not more than 2 percentage points, and the ACP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year is not more than the ACP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year multiplied by 2. (ii) (iii) (A) Pursuant to section 401(m)(5)(C), the ACP test is performed under the plan (determined without regard to disaggregation under § 1.410(b)-7(c)(3)), using the ACP for all eligible HCEs for the plan year and the ACP of eligible NHCEs for the applicable year, disregarding all NHCEs who have not met the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A); or (B) Pursuant to § 1.401(m)-1(b)(4), the plan is disaggregated into separate plans and the ACP test is performed separately for all eligible employees who have completed the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A) and for all eligible employees who have not completed the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A). (2) (ii) (3) (ii) (B) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii) (A) The matching contribution is allocated to the employee's account under the terms of the plan as of a date within that year; (B) The matching contribution is made on account of (or the matching contribution is allocated on the basis of) the employee's elective def
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADA paratransit eligibility: Process.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 49
Each public entity required to provide complementary paratransit service by § 37.121 of this part shall establish a process for determining ADA paratransit eligibility. (a) The process shall strictly limit ADA paratransit eligibility to individuals specified in § 37.123 of this part. (b) All information about the process, materials necessary to apply for eligibility, and notices and determinations concerning eligibility shall be made available in accessible formats, upon request. (c) If, by a date 21 days following the submission of a complete application, the entity has not made a determination of eligibility, the applicant shall be treated as eligible and provided service until and unless the entity denies the application. (d) The entity's determination concerning eligibility shall be in writing. If the determination is that the individual is ineligible, the determination shall state the reasons for the finding. (e) The public entity shall provide documentation to each eligible individual stating that he or she is “ADA Paratransit Eligible.” The documentation shall include the name of the eligible individual, the name of the transit provider, the telephone number of the entity's paratransit coordinator, an expiration date for eligibility, and any conditions or limitations on the individual's eligibility including the use of a personal care attendant. (f) The entity may require recertification of the eligibility of ADA paratransit eligible individuals at reasonable intervals
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADA paratransit eligibility: Standards.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 49
(a) Public entities required by § 37.121 of this subpart to provide complementary paratransit service shall provide the service to the ADA paratransit eligible individuals described in paragraph (e) of this section. (b) If an individual meets the eligibility criteria of this section with respect to some trips but not others, the individual shall be ADA paratransit eligible only for those trips for which he or she meets the criteria. (c) Individuals may be ADA paratransit eligible on the basis of a permanent or temporary disability. (d) Public entities may provide complementary paratransit service to persons other than ADA paratransit eligible individuals. However, only the cost of service to ADA paratransit eligible (e) The following individuals are ADA paratransit eligible: (1) Any individual with a disability who is unable, as the result of a physical or mental impairment (including a vision impairment), and without the assistance of another individual (except the operator of a wheelchair lift or other boarding assistance device), to board, ride, or disembark from any vehicle on the system which is readily accessible to and usable individuals with disabilities. (2) Any individual with a disability who needs the assistance of a wheelchair lift or other boarding assistance device and is able, with such assistance, to board, ride and disembark from any vehicle which is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities if the individual wants to travel on a rout
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADDI allocation formula.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 24
(a) (b) (c) (d) (i) Has a total population of 150,000 individuals or more, as determined on the basis of the most recent available U.S. census data (as adjusted by HUD); or (ii) Would receive an allocation of $50,000 or more. (2) Any allocation that would have otherwise been made to a local participating jurisdiction that does not meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall revert back to the state in which the participating jurisdiction is located. (e) (f) (1) (2)
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADIZ flight plan requirements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 14
(a) No person may operate an aircraft into, within, or from a departure point within an ADIZ, unless the person files, activates, and closes a flight plan with the appropriate aeronautical facility, or is otherwise authorized by air traffic control. (b) Unless ATC authorizes an abbreviated flight plan— (1) A flight plan for IFR flight must contain the information specified in § 91.169; and (2) A flight plan for VFR flight must contain the information specified in § 91.153(a) (1) through (6). (3) If airport of departure is within the Alaskan ADIZ and there is no facility for filing a flight plan then: (i) Immediately after takeoff or when within range of an appropriate aeronautical facility, comply with provisions of paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) as appropriate. (ii) Proceed according to the instructions issued by the appropriate aeronautical facility. (c) The pilot shall designate a flight plan for VFR flight as a DVFR flight plan. (d) The pilot in command of an aircraft for which a flight plan has been filed must file an arrival or completion notice with an appropriate aeronautical facility.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADP reviews.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
The Department will conduct periodic onsite surveys and reviews of State and local agency ADP methods (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (2) (i) Determination and implementation of appropriate security requirements as specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. (ii) Establishment of a security plan and, as appropriate, policies and procedures to address the following area of ADP security: (A) Physical security of ADP resources; (B) Equipment security to protect equipment from theft and unauthorized use; (C) Software and data security; (D) Telecommunications security; (E) Personnel security; (F) Contingency plans to meet critical processing needs in the event of short or long-term interruption of service; (G) Emergency preparedness; and, (H) Designation of an Agency ADP Security Manager. (iii) Periodic risk analyses. State agencies must establish and maintain a program for conducting periodic risk analyses to ensure that appropriate, cost effective safeguards are incorporated into new and existing systems. State agencies must perform risk analyses whenever significant system changes occur. (3) (4) Costs incurred in complying with provisions of paragraphs (f)(1)-(3) of this section are considered regular administrative costs which are funded at the regular match rate. (5) The security requirements of this section apply to all ADP systems used by State and local governments to administer programs covered under 45 CFR part 95, subpart F. (6) The State agency shall maintain reports of the
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADP test.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 26
(a) (A) The ADP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year is not more than the ADP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year multiplied by 1.25; or (B) The excess of the ADP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year over the ADP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year is not more than 2 percentage points, and the ADP for the eligible HCEs for the plan year is not more than the ADP for the eligible NHCEs for the applicable year multiplied by 2. (ii) (iii) (A) Pursuant to section 401(k)(3)(F), the ADP test is performed under the plan (determined without regard to disaggregation under § 1.410(b)-7(c)(3)), using the ADP for all eligible HCEs for the plan year and the ADP of eligible NHCEs for the applicable year, disregarding all NHCEs who have not met the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A); or (B) Pursuant to § 1.401(k)-1(b)(4), the plan is disaggregated into separate plans and the ADP test is performed separately for all eligible employees who have completed the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A) and for all eligible employees who have not completed the minimum age and service requirements of section 410(a)(1)(A). (2) (ii) (3) (ii) (B) (iii) (4) (A) The elective contribution is allocated to the eligible employee's account under the plan as of a date within that year. For purposes of this rule, an elective contribution is considered allocated as of a date within a year only if— ( ( (B) The elective contribution relates
official document
· source cfr-2024
ADP/CIS Model Plan.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) (2) (i) State agencies which are sufficiently automated in each area specified in § 272.10(b) may provide a single certification statement that they are sufficiently automated in each area. (ii) State agencies which are sufficiently automated in some, but not all, areas specified in § 272.10(b) shall submit an ADP/CIS plan which consists of two parts. The first part would be the State agency's certification as to the areas in which they are sufficiently automated. The second part would describe the areas of § 272.10(b) which the State agency has not automated or, in its opinion, has not automated sufficiently and include the State agency's plans for sufficiently automating these areas. State agencies shall include a description of how they intend to automate each area and a timetable for each planned activity, including a consideration of transfers as discussed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. State agencies which are not planning to automate each of the areas specified § 272.10(b) or which are not already automated in these areas shall provide justification. Any such justification shall include a cost-effectiveness analysis. (iii) State agencies which are not sufficiently automated in any of the areas specified in § 272.10(b) shall submit an ADP/CIS plan which describes their plans for sufficiently automating each area, including a timetable for each planned activity, and including a consideration of transfers as discussed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. State a
official document
· source cfr-2024
AEC licensees—AEC contractors operating AEC plants and facilities—AEC agreement State licensees or registrants.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 41
(a) Any employer who possesses or uses source material, byproduct material, or special nuclear material, as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, under a license issued by the Atomic Energy Commission and in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR part 20 shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this subpart with respect to such possession and use. (b) AEC contractors operating AEC plants and facilities: Any employer who possesses or uses source material, byproduct material, special nuclear material, or other radiation sources under a contract with the Atomic Energy Commission for the operation of (c) AEC-agreement State licensees or registrants: (1) (2)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AF Form 813, Request for Environmental Impact Analysis.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 32
The Air Force uses AF Form 813 to document the need for environmental analysis or for certain CATEX determinations for proposed actions. The form helps narrow and focus the issues to potential environmental impacts. AF Form 813 must be retained with the EA or EIS to record the focusing of environmental issues.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AFA cost recovery.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 50
(a) (ii) The person designated as the representative of the entity representing the AFA catcher/processor sector under § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C) at the time of a Bering Sea pollock landing. (iii) The person designated as the representative of the AFA mothership cooperative at the time of a Bering Sea pollock landing. (2) (ii) Changes in the membership in a cooperative, such as members joining or departing during the relevant year, or changes in the holdings of AFA permits of those members do not affect the designated representative's liability for noncompliance with this section. (3) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (2) (ii) (iii) (A) Landed pounds of Bering Sea pollock; (B) Total ex-vessel value of Bering Sea pollock; and (C) Price adjustments, including retroactive payments. (c) (2) (i) (A) The catch to which the AFA pollock cost recovery fee will apply; (B) The ex-vessel value of that catch; and (C) The costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the AFA directed pollock fisheries. (ii) (A) DPC = the direct program costs for the directed AFA pollock fisheries for the most recent fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) with any adjustments to the account from payments received in the previous year. (B) V = total of the standard ex-vessel value of the catch subject to the AFA fee liability for the current year. (iii) Direct program costs will be calculated separately for: (A) AFA inshore cooperatives; (B) The AFA catcher/processor sector; and (C) The
official document
· source cfr-2024
AFFH certification and administration.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 24
(a) (b) (1) Making HUD-provided data and informational resources available, including about how to voluntarily engage in fair housing planning, such as: (i) Analyzing fair housing data, assessing fair housing issues and contributing factors, assessing fair housing priorities and goals; taking meaningful actions to support identified goals; and taking no action that is materially inconsistent with the obligation to affirmatively further fair housing; or (ii) Conducting an analysis to identify impediments to fair housing choice within the jurisdiction, taking appropriate actions to overcome the effects of any impediments identified through that analysis, and maintaining records reflecting the analysis and actions in this regard; or (iii) Engaging in other means of fair housing planning that meaningfully supports this certification; (2) Permitting a program participant to voluntarily submit its fair housing planning for HUD feedback from the responsible office; and (3) Engaging in other forms of technical assistance. (c) (1) For consolidated plan program participants, HUD's challenge to the validity of an AFFH certification will be as specified in 24 CFR part 91. (2) For PHA Plan program participants, HUD's challenge to the validity of an AFFH certification will be as specified in 24 CFR part 903. (d) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) Jurisdictions and Insular Areas, as described in 570.405 and defined in 570.3, that are required to submit consolidated plans for the following programs: (A) T
official document
· source cfr-2024
AFP-L3% immunological test system.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 21
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AFRH participation in NEPA compliance by other agencies.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 38
(a) AFRH may participate in the NEPA process as a cooperating agency for another lead agency's project, or as a commenter/reviewer of another agency's NEPA document. AFRH may also participate in environmental studies carried out by non-Federal parties (for example, a local government conducting studies under a State environmental policy law) where such studies are relevant to AFRH's interests or may be incorporated by AFRH into its own studies under NEPA. Where AFRH will be responsible for a decision on a project that is the subject of such a study, and has the authority to do so, AFRH will ensure that the study and its resulting documents meet the standards set forth in these regulations in coordination with the COO. (b) As a cooperating agency, AFRH participates in the NEPA process as requested by the lead agency, in accordance with 40 CFR 1501.6 of the CEQ regulations. Tasks may include participating in meetings and providing specific information relevant to the matters over which it has jurisdiction by law or expertise. (c) AFRH comments shall be prepared in consultation with, or by, the Master Planner. (d) The responsible AFRH official may provide comments and/or reviews of another agency's NEPA documents, and/or other Federal and State environmental documents. (e) AFRH comments shall be provided in accordance with 40 CFR 1503.3.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AGAR Advisories.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 48
The SPE may issue AGAR Advisories, consistent with the policies of the FAR and the AGAR, for the following purposes: (a) To communicate Department-wide policy and/or procedural guidance to contracting activities; (b) To delegate to procurement officials authority to make determinations or to take action to implement the policies of the FAR or the AGAR; and, (c) To establish internal policy and procedures on an interim basis, prior to incorporation in the AGAR or in a Departmental Directive. (d) AGAR Advisories are only available in electronic format on the USDA
official document
· source cfr-2024
AHE Procedure.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 46
(a) To complete the underwater survey you must— (1) Perform a general examination of the underwater hull plating and a detailed examination of all hull welds, propellers, tailshafts, rudders, and other hull appurtenances; (2) Examine all sea chests; (3) Remove and inspect all sea valves in the presence of a marine inspector once every five years; (4) Remove all passengers from the vessel when the sea valves are being examined, if required by the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI); (5) Allow access to all internal areas of the hull for examination, except internal tanks that carry fuel (unless damage or deterioration is discovered or suspect), sewage, or potable water. Internal sewage and potable water tanks may be examined visually or by non-destructive testing to the satisfaction of the attending marine inspector; and (6) Meet the requirements in § 176.650 of this part. (b) A marine inspector may examine any other areas deemed necessary by the OCMI. (c) If the AHE reveals significant deterioration or damage to the vessel's hull plating or structural members, the OCMI must be immediately notified. The OCMI may require the vessel be drydocked or otherwise taken out of service to further assess the extent of damage or to effect permanent repairs if the assessment or repairs cannot be
official document
· source cfr-2024
AIDAR clauses incorporated by reference
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 48
In accordance with 752.107(b), insert the following clause.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AIDAR provisions and clauses prescribed in this subpart.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 48
(a) The contracting officer must insert the provision at 752.252-1, Solicitation Provisions Incorporated by Reference, in solicitations in order to incorporate AIDAR provisions by reference. (b) The contracting officer must insert the clause at 752.252-2, AIDAR Clauses Incorporated by Reference, in solicitations and contracts in order incorporate AIDAR clauses by reference. (c) The contracting officer must insert the provision at 752.252-70, Provisions and Clauses to be Completed by the Offeror, in full text in solicitations or contract containing FAR or AIDAR provision(s) or clause(s) that must be completed by offerors or prospective contractors and submitted with the quotation or offer.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AIDAR solicitation provisions incorporated by reference
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 48
In accordance with 752.107(a), insert the following clause.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AKI dialysis payment rate.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
The amount of payment for AKI dialysis services shall be the base rate for renal dialysis services determined for such year under section 1881(b)(14), that is, the ESRD base rate as set forth in § 413.220, updated by the ESRD bundled market basket percentage increase factor minus a productivity adjustment as set forth in § 413.196(d)(1), adjusted for wages as set forth in § 413.231, and adjusted by any other amounts deemed appropriate by the Secretary under § 413.373.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALE-agreements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) NRCS will enter into an ALE-agreement with a selected eligible entity that stipulates the terms and conditions under which the eligible entity is permitted to use ACEP-ALE funding (1) The interests in land to be acquired, including the United States' right of enforcement, the deed requirements specified in this part, as well as the other terms and conditions of the easement deed; (2) The management and enforcement of the rights on lands acquired with ACEP-ALE funds; (3) The responsibilities of NRCS; (4) The responsibilities of the eligible entity on easements acquired with ACEP-ALE funds; (5) The requirement for any conservation plan for highly erodible cropland or agricultural land easement plans to be developed as required or agreed-to prior to execution of the easement deed and payment of easement compensation to the landowner; (6) As applicable, the allowance of eligible parcel substitution upon mutual agreement of the parties; (7) The certification by the landowner at the time of easement execution and payment of easement compensation of the extent of any charitable contribution or other donation the landowner has provided to the eligible entity; (8) The submission of documentation of procured costs for each parcel, including appraisal, boundary survey, phase-I environmental site assessment, title commitment or report, title insurance, and closing cost if such procured costs are to be considered as part of the eligible entity's non-Federal share; and (9) Other requir
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
The ALJ will issue an initial agency decision based only on the record and on applicable law; the decision will contain findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ's decision is final and appealable after 30 days unless it is modified or vacated under § 150.457.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
The ALJ will issue an initial agency decision based only on the record and on applicable law; the decision will contain findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ's decision is final and appealable after 30 days unless it is modified or vacated under § 156.957.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ hearing procedures.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (b) (2) The ALJ may limit testimony and/or argument at the hearing that are not relevant to an issue before the ALJ, that are repetitive of evidence or testimony already in the record, or that relate to an issue that has been sufficiently developed or on which the ALJ has already ruled. The ALJ may, but is not required to, provide the party or representative with an opportunity to submit additional written statements and affidavits on the matter, in lieu of testimony and/or argument at the hearing. The written statements and affidavits must be submitted within the time frame designated by the ALJ. (3) If the ALJ determines that a party or party's representative is uncooperative, disruptive to the hearing, or abusive during the course of the hearing after the ALJ has warned the party or representative to stop such behavior, the ALJ may excuse the party or representative from the hearing and continue with the hearing to provide the other parties and participants with an opportunity to offer testimony and/or argument. If a party or representative was excused from the hearing, the ALJ will provide the party or representative with an opportunity to submit written statements and affidavits in lieu of testimony and/or argument at the hearing, and the party or representative may request a recording of the hearing in accordance with § 405.1042 and respond in writing to any statements made by other parties or participants and/or testimony of the witnesses at the hearing. The writte
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ hearing procedures.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (b) (2) The ALJ may limit testimony and argument at the hearing that are not relevant to an issue before the ALJ, that are repetitive of evidence or testimony already in the record, or that relate to an issue that has been sufficiently developed or on which the ALJ has already ruled. The ALJ may, but is not required to, provide the enrollee or representative with an opportunity to submit additional written statements and affidavits on the matter in lieu of testimony and/or argument at the hearing. The written statements and affidavits must be submitted within the time frame designated by the ALJ. (3) If the ALJ determines that the enrollee or enrollee's representative is uncooperative, disruptive to the hearing, or abusive during the course of the hearing after the ALJ has warned the (c) (d) (e) (2) If the enrollee requests the continuance and an adjudication time frame applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016, the adjudication period is extended by the period between the initial hearing date and the continued hearing date. (f) (2) If the enrollee requests the supplemental hearing and an adjudication period applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016, the adjudication period is extended by the period between the initial hearing date and the supplemental hearing date.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's LCD review record.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (1) The LCD complaint. (2) The LCD and LCD record. (3) The supplemental LCD record, if applicable. (4) Transcripts of record. (5) Any other relevant evidence gathered under § 426.440. (6) The ALJ's decision. (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) The ALJ must issue a decision, based only on the record, which must contain findings of fact and conclusions of law. (b) The ALJ may affirm, increase, or reduce the penalties imposed by the Secretary. (c) The ALJ must issue the decision to both parties within 60 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs, if permitted, has expired. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she must notify the parties of the reason for the delay and set a new deadline. (d) Unless the decision of the ALJ is timely appealed as provided for in § 3.548, the decision of the ALJ will be final and binding on the parties 60 days from the date of service of the ALJ's decision.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
(a) The ALJ must issue a decision, based only on the record, which must contain findings of fact and conclusions of law. (b) The ALJ may affirm, increase, or reduce the penalties imposed by the Secretary. (c) The ALJ must issue the decision to both parties within 60 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs, if permitted, has expired. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she must notify the parties of the reason for the delay and set a new deadline. (d) Unless the decision of the ALJ is timely appealed as provided for in § 160.548, the decision of the ALJ will be final and binding on the parties 60 days from the date of service of the ALJ's decision.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 49
(a) After consideration of all matters of record in the proceeding, the ALJ shall issue an order dismissing the notice of probable violation in whole or in part or granting the sanction sought by the Office of Chief Counsel in the notice. If the ALJ does not dismiss the notice of probable violation in whole, he issues an order directing compliance or assessing a civil penalty, or, if proposed in the notice, both. The order includes a statement of the findings and conclusions, and the reasons therefore, on all material issues of fact, law, and discretion. (b) If, within 20 days of receipt of an order issued under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent does not submit in writing his acceptance of the terms of an order directing compliance, or, where appropriate, pay a civil penalty, or file an appeal under § 107.325, the case may be referred to the Attorney General with a request that an action be brought in the appropriate United States District Court to enforce the terms of a compliance order or collect the civil penalty.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's initial decision.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) The ALJ shall decide the appeal not later than 60 days after receipt of rebuttal evidence submitted by the State agency pursuant to § 283.8 or, if the State agency does not submit rebuttal evidence, not later than 90 days after the State agency submits the notice of appeal and evidence in support of the appeal. The ALJ may extend this deadline for cause shown. (b) The ALJ shall prepare, upon the basis of the record, and shall file an initial decision which shall include a decision on a request for good cause relief, a copy of which shall be served upon each of the parties. (c) Such initial decision shall constitute the final notice of determination for purposes of judicial review without further proceedings, unless there is a motion for reconsideration filed pursuant to § 283.17(d) or review by the Judicial Officer is sought pursuant to § 283.20.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJ's review of the LCD to apply the reasonableness standard.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (1) Confine the LCD review to the provision(s) of the LCD raised in the aggrieved party's complaint. (2) Conduct a hearing, unless the matter can be decided on the written record. (3) Close the LCD review record to the taking of evidence. (4) Treat as precedential any previous Board decision under § 426.482 that involves the same LCD provison(s), same specific issue and facts in question, and the same clinical conditions. (5) Issue a decision as described in § 426.447. (b) (1) Consult with appropriate scientific or clinical experts concerning evidence. (2) Consider any previous ALJ decision made under § 426.447 regarding the same provision(s) of the LCD under review and for the same clinical conditions. (c)
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALJs.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) (1) Has any pecuniary interest in any matter or business involved in the appeal, (2) Is related by blood or marriage to any party in the appeal, or (3) Has any conflict of interest which might impair the ALJ's objectivity in the appeal. (b) (2) The ALJ may withdraw from any appeal for any reason deemed by the ALJ to be disqualifying. (c) (i) Rule upon motions and requests; (ii) Set the time and place of a pre-hearing conference and the time of the hearing, adjourn the hearing from time to time, and change the time of the hearing; (iii) Administer oaths and affirmations; (iv) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery; (v) Issue and enforce subpoenas as authorized under 7 U.S.C. 2023(a) and these rules; (vi) Summon and examine witnesses and receive evidence at the hearing; (vii) Appoint expert witnesses in accordance with the provisions of Rule 706 of the Federal Rules of Evidence; (viii) Admit or exclude evidence; (ix) Hear oral argument on facts or law; (x) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by non-oral hearing procedures under subpart C of this part where there is no disputed material issue of fact; (xi) Perform all acts and take all measures necessary for the maintenance of order, including the exclusion of contumacious counsel or other persons; (xii) Take all other actions authorized under the Act and these rules, including the extension of time upon motion of a party or (2) The ALJ may not rule upon the validity of Federal statutes or regulati
official document
· source cfr-2024
ALP Express Loans.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 13
(a) (1) Means a 504 loan in an amount that is not more than $500,000; and (2) Does not include a loan made to a borrower that is in an industry that has a high rate of default, as annually determined by SBA. SBA will publish an annual list of the industries with a high rate of default in a notice in the (b) (2) (3) (ii) (4) (5) (6) (c) (d)
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM antenna systems.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) All applicants for new, additional, or different AM station facilities and all licensees requesting authority to change the transmitting system site of an existing station must specify an antenna system, the efficiency of which complies with the requirements for the class and power of station. (See §§ 73.186 and 73.189.) (1) An application for authority to install an AM broadcast antenna must specify a definite site and include full details of the antenna system design and expected performance. (2) All data necessary to show compliance with the terms and conditions of the construction permit must be filed with the application for the station license to cover the construction. If the station has constructed a directional antenna, a directional proof of performance must be filed. See §§ 73.150 through 73.157. (b) The simultaneous use of a common antenna or antenna structure by more than one AM station or by a station of any other type or service may be authorized provided: (1) Engineering data are submitted showing that satisfactory operation of each station will be obtained without adversely affecting the operation of the other station(s). (2) The minimum field strength for each AM station complies with § 73.189(b). (c) Should any changes be made or otherwise occur which would possibly alter the resistance of the antenna system, the licensee must commence the determination of the operating power by a method described in § 73.51(a)(1) or (d). (If the changes are due to the
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM broadcast definitions.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
In a positive direction: In a negative direction:
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM broadcast station applications affected by international agreements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no application for an AM station will be accepted for filing if authorization of the facilities requested would be inconsistent with international commitments of the United States under treaties and other international agreements, arrangements and understandings. (See list of such international instruments in § 73.1650(b)). Any such application that is inadvertently accepted for filing will be dismissed. (b) AM applications that involve conflicts only with the North American Regional Broadcasting Agreement (NARBA), but that are in conformity with the remaining treaties and other international agreements listed in § 73.1650(b) and with the other requirements of this part 73, will be granted subject to such modifications as the FCC may subsequently find appropriate, taking international considerations into account. (c) In the case of any application designated for hearing on issues other than those related to consistency with international relationships and as to which no final decision has been rendered, whenever action under this section becomes appropriate because of inconsistency with international relationships, the applicant involved shall, notwithstanding the provisions §§ 73.3522 and 73.3571, be permitted to amend its application to achieve consistency with such relationships. In such cases the provisions of § 73.3605(c) will apply. (d) In some circumstances, special international considerations may require that t
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM directional antenna field strength measurements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) Each AM station using a directional antenna with monitoring point locations specified in the instrument of authorization must make field strength measurements as often as necessary to ensure that the field at each of those points does not exceed the value specified in the station authorization. Additionally, stations not having an approved sampling system must make the measurements once each calendar quarter at intervals not exceeding 120 days. The provision of this paragraph supersedes any schedule specified on a station license issued prior to January 1, 1986. The results of the measurements are to be entered into the station log pursuant to the provisions of § 73.1820. (b) If the AM license was granted on the basis of field strength measurements performed pursuant to § 73.151(a), partial proof of performance measurements using the procedures described in § 73.154 must be made whenever the licensee has reason to believe that the radiated field may be exceeding the limits for which the station was most recently authorized to operate. (c) A station may be directed to make a partial proof of performance by the FCC whenever there is an indication that the antenna is not operating as authorized.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM directional antenna partial proof of performance measurements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) A partial proof of performance consists of at least 8 field strength measurements made on each of the radials that includes a monitoring point. (b) The measurements are to be made within 3 to 15 kilometers from the center of the antenna array. When a monitoring point as designated on the station authorization lies on a particular radial, one of the measurements must be made at that point. One of the following methods shall be used for the partial proof: (1) Measurement points shall be selected from the points measured in latest full proof of performance provided that the points can be identified with reasonable certainty, and that land development or other factors have not significantly altered propagation characteristics since the last full proof. At each point, the licensee shall measure directional field strength for comparison to either the directional or the nondirectional field strength measured at that point in the last full proof. (2) In the event that a meaningful comparison to full proof measurements cannot be made, the licensee shall measure both directional and nondirectional field strength at eight points on each radial. The points need not be limited to those measured in the last full proof of performance. (c) The results of the measurements are to be analyzed as follows. Either the arithmetic average or the logarithmic average of the ratios of the field strength at each measurement point to the corresponding field strength in the most recent complete proof
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM station operation pre-sunrise and post-sunset.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
Certain classes of AM stations are eligible to operate pre-sunrise and/or post-sunset for specified periods with facilities other than those specified on their basic instruments of authorization. Such pre-sunrise and post-sunset operation is authorized pursuant to the provisions of § 73.99 of the Rules.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM stereophonic broadcasting.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) An Am broadcast station may, without specific authority from the FCC, transmit stereophonic programs upon installation of type accepted stereophonic transmitting equipment and the necessary measuring equipment to determine that the stereophonic transmissions conform to the modulation characteristics specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Stations transmitting stereophonic programs prior to March 21, 1994 may continue to do so until March 21, 1995 as long as they continue to comply with the rules in effect prior to March 21, 1994. (b) The following limitations on the transmitted wave must be met to insure compliance with the occupied bandwidth limitations, compatibility (1) The transmitted wave must meet the occupied bandwidth specifications of § 73.44 under all possible conditions of program modulation. Compliance with requirement shall be demonstrated either by the following specific modulation tests or other documented test procedures that are to be fully described in the application for type acceptance and the transmitting equipment instruction manual. (See § 2.983(d)(8) and (j)). (i) Main channel (L + R) under all conditions of amplitude modulations for the stereophonic system but not exceeding amplitude modulation on negative peaks of 100%. (ii) Stereophonic (L−R) modulated with audio tones of the same amplitude at the transmitter input terminals as in paragraph (b)(i) of this section but with the phase of either the L or R channel reversed. (iii) Left
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM transmission system emission limitations.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) The emissions of stations in the AM service shall be attenuated in accordance with the requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Emissions shall be measured using a properly operated and suitable swept-frequency RF spectrum analyzer using a peak hold duration of 10 minutes, no video filtering, and a 300 Hz resolution bandwidth, except that a wider resolution bandwidth may be employed above 11.5 kHz to detect transient emissions. Alternatively, other specialized receivers or monitors with appropriate characteristics may be used to determine compliance with the provisions of this section, provided that any disputes over measurement accuracy are resolved in favor of measurements obtained by using a calibrated spectrum analyzer adjusted as set forth above. (b) Emissions 10.2 kHz to 20 kHz removed from the carrier must be attenuated at least 25 dB below the unmodulated carrier level, emissions 20 kHz to 30 kHz removed from the carrier must be attenuated at least 35 dB below the unmodulated carrier level, emissions 30 kHz to 60 kHz removed from the carrier must be attenuated at least [5 + 1 dB/kHz] below the unmodulated carrier level, and emissions between 60 kHz and 75 kHz of the carrier frequency must be attenuated at least 65 dB below the unmodulated carrier level. Emissions removed by more than 75 kHz must be attenuated at least 43 + 10 Log (Power in watts) or 80 dB below the unmodulated carrier level, whichever is the lesser attenuation, except for transmitt
official document
· source cfr-2024
AM transmission system fencing requirements.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
Antenna towers having radio frequency potential at the base (series fed, folded unipole, and insulated base antennas) must be enclosed within effective locked fences or other enclosures. Ready access must be provided to each antenna tower base for meter reading and maintenance purposes at all times. However, individual tower fences need not be installed if the towers are contained within a protective property fence.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMA plan of operations.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) All conservation practices in the APO must be approved by NRCS and developed and carried out in accordance with the applicable NRCS technical guidance. (b) The participant is responsible for implementing the APO. (c) The APO must include: (1) A description of the participant's specific conservation and environmental objectives to be achieved; (2) To the extent practicable, the quantitative or qualitative goals for achieving the participant's conservation and environmental objectives; (3) A description of one or more conservation practices in the conservation system, including conservation planning, design, or installation activities to be implemented to achieve the conservation and environmental objectives; (4) A description of the schedule for implementing the conservation practices, including timing, sequence, operation, and maintenance; and (5) Information that will enable evaluation of the effectiveness of the plan in achieving the environmental objectives. (d) An APO may be modified in accordance with § 1465.24.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AML agency procedures for reclamation projects receiving less than 50 percent government funding.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 30
This section tells you, the AML agency, what to do when considering an abandoned mine land reclamation project as government-financed construction under part 707 of this chapter. This section only applies if the level of funding for the construction will be less than 50 percent of the total cost because of planned coal extraction. (a) (1) You must determine the likelihood of the coal being mined under a Title V permit. This determination must take into account available information such as: (i) Coal reserves from existing mine maps or other sources; (ii) Existing environmental conditions; (iii) All prior mining activity on or adjacent to the site; (iv) Current and historic coal production in the area; and (v) Any known or anticipated interest in mining the site. (2) You must determine the likelihood that nearby or adjacent mining activities might create new environmental problems or adversely affect existing environmental problems at the site. (3) You must determine the likelihood that reclamation activities at the site might adversely affect nearby or adjacent mining activities. (b) (1) You must concur in a determination of the limits on any coal refuse, coal waste, or other coal deposits which can be extracted under the part 707 exemption or counterpart State/Indian Tribe laws and regulations. (2) You must concur in the delineation of the boundaries of the AML project. (c) (1) The determinations made under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; (2) The information taken in
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMS operator, qualifications.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 30
(a) To be qualified as an AMS operator, a person shall be provided with task training on duties and responsibilities at each mine where an AMS operator is employed in accordance with the mine operator's approved Part 48 training plan. (b) An AMS operator must be able to demonstrate to an authorized representative of the Secretary that he/she is qualified to perform in the assigned position.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMS.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
The publisher provides no abstract for this document; none is invented here.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMS.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
The publisher provides no abstract for this document; none is invented here.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMTS points of communication.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 47
(a) AMTS coast stations may communicate with fixed platform stations located in the offshore waters of the Gulf of Mexico, with ship stations, and with land units in accordance with § 80.123. (b) AMTS licensees in the offshore waters of the Gulf of Mexico may use AMTS coast and ship station frequencies on a secondary basis for fixed service communications to support offshore AMTS operations. (c) AMTS service may be provided to any vessel within communication service range of an AMTS station even though the vessel may not be operating within the confines of a served waterway. (d) AMTS licensees may use AMTS coast and ship frequencies on a secondary basis for fixed service communications to support AMTS deployment in remote fixed locations at which other communications facilities are not available.
official document
· source cfr-2024
AMs and harvest controls.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 50
(a) (B) ( (ii) (2) When the Regional Administrator has determined that the GOM and/or GB incidental catch cap for haddock in § 648.90(a)(4)(iii)(D) has been caught, no vessel issued a Federal Atlantic herring permit and fishing with midwater trawl gear in the applicable Accountability Measure (AM) Area, (3) (ii) If NMFS determines that total catch exceeded an Atlantic herring sub-ACL by greater than 10 percent and the ACL was not exceeded in a given fishing year, then NMFS shall subtract the amount of the overage above 10 percent from the ACL and applicable sub-ACL in the fishing year following total catch determination. For example, if catch exceeded the Area 1A sub-ACL by 15 percent in Year 1 and the ACL was not exceeded, the amount equal to the 5 percent overage would be deducted from the ACL and Area 1A sub-ACL in Year 3. (iii) If NMFS determines that total catch exceeded an Atlantic herring sub-ACL by any amount and the ACL was also exceeded in a given fishing year, then NMFS shall subtract the full amount of the sub-ACL overage from the applicable sub-ACL, and the full amount of the ACL overage from the ACL, in the fishing year following total catch determination. For example, if catch exceeded the Area 1A sub-ACL by 15 percent and the ACL by 5 percent in Year 1, the amount equal to the 15-percent overage would be deducted from the Area 1A sub-ACL and the amount equal to the 5-percent overage would be deducted from the ACL in Year 3. (iv) If NMFS determines that total c
official document
· source cfr-2024
APD posting and processing.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 43
(a) (1) The BLM will post information about the APD or Notice of Staking for Federal oil and gas leases to the internet and in an area of the BLM Field Office having jurisdiction that is readily accessible to the public. Posting to the internet under this provision will not be required until after March 13, 2017. If the surface is managed by a Federal agency other than the BLM, that agency also is required to post the notice for at least 30 days. This would include the BIA where the surface is held in trust but the mineral estate is federally owned. The posting is for informational purposes only and is not an appealable decision. The purpose of the posting is to give any interested party notification that a Federal approval of mineral operations has been requested. The BLM or the FS will not post confidential information. (2) Reposting of the proposal may be necessary if the posted location of the proposed well is: (i) Moved to a different quarter-quarter section; (ii) Moved more than 660 feet for lands that are not covered by a Public Land Survey; or (iii) If the BLM or the FS determine that the move is substantial. (b) (1) Within 10 days of receiving an application, the BLM (in consultation with the FS if the application concerns NFS lands) will notify the operator as to whether or not the application is complete. The BLM will request additional information and correction of any material submitted, if necessary, in the 10-day notification. If an onsite inspection has not be
official document
· source cfr-2024
APHIS action on petition.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 9
(a) Within 90 days after APHIS receives a petition filed under § 124.30, the Under Secretary for Marketing and Regulatory Programs shall make a determination under paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section or under § 124.33 whether the applicant acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period. APHIS will publish its determination in the (b) APHIS may deny a due diligence petition without considering the merits of the petition if: (1) The petition is not filed in accordance with § 124.30; (2) The petition does not contain information or allegations upon which APHIS may reasonably determine that (3) The petition fails to allege a sufficient total amount of time during which the applicant did not exercise due diligence so that, even if the petition were granted, the petition would not affect the maximum patent term extension which the applicant is entitled to under 35 U.S.C. 156.
official document
· source cfr-2024
APHIS liaison with PTO.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 9
Upon receipt of a copy of an application for extension of the term of a veterinary biologic patent from PTO, APHIS will assist PTO in determining whether a patent related to a biological product is eligible for patent term extension by: (a)(1) Verifying whether the product was subject to a regulatory review period before its commercial marketing or use; (2) Determining whether the permission for commercial marketing or use of the product after the regulatory review period was the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product under the provision of law under which such regulatory review period occurred, and, if so, whether it was the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the veterinary biological product for administration to a food-producing animal; (3) Ascertaining whether the patent term restoration application was submitted within 60 days after the product was approved for marketing or use; and (4) Providing such other information as may be necessary and relevant to PTO's determination of whether a patent related to a product is eligible for patent term restoration. (b) APHIS will notify PTO of its findings in writing, send a copy of this notification to the applicant, and make a copy available for public inspection in room 1141, South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC, between 8 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays.
official document
· source cfr-2024
APHIS review of permit applications; denial or revocation of permits.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) (2) (i) The State recommends that we issue the permit; (ii) The State recommends that we issue the permit with specified additional conditions; (iii) The State recommends that we deny the permit application and provides scientific, risk-based reasons supporting that recommendation; or (iv) The State makes no recommendation, thereby concurring with our decision regarding the issuance of the permit. (b) (1) Issue you a written permit with, if applicable, certain specific conditions (2) Notify you that your application has been denied and provide reasons for the denial. (c) (1) Existing safeguards against dissemination are inadequate and no adequate safeguards can be arranged; or (2) The potential for disseminating an exotic bee disease or parasite, or an undesirable species or subspecies of honeybee, with the restricted organism outweighs the probable benefits that could be derived from the proposed movement and use of the restricted organism; or (3) When you, as a previous permittee, failed to maintain the safeguards or otherwise observe the conditions prescribed in a previous permit and have failed to demonstrate your ability or intent to observe them in the future; or (4) The proposed movement of the restricted organism is adverse to the conduct of an eradication, suppression, control, or regulatory program of APHIS. (5) APHIS may also deny a permit to import restricted organisms: (i) To a person who has previously failed to comply with any APHIS regulation, except: (A)
official document
· source cfr-2024
APM Entity groups.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (1) In addition to the dates set forth in § 414.1425(b)(1), for purposes of MIPS, the APM Entity group includes an eligible clinician who is on a Participation List on December 31 of the MIPS performance period. (2) For purposes of MIPS scoring, the APM Entity group will be comprised only of those eligible clinicians within the APM Entity group who are determined to be MIPS eligible at the individual or group level. (3) For purposes of calculating the APM Entity group score, MIPS scores submitted by virtual groups will not be included. (b) (1) (i) A group score based on the measure data for the performance category reported by a TIN for the MIPS eligible clinician according to MIPS submission and reporting requirements for groups. (ii) An individual score based on the measure data for the performance category reported by the MIPS eligible clinician according to MIPS submission and reporting requirements for individuals. (iii) In the event that a MIPS eligible clinician in an APM Entity receives an exception from the reporting requirements, such eligible clinician will be assigned a null score when CMS calculates the APM Entity's performance category score. (2) (3) (4) (i) An APM Entity must demonstrate in its application to CMS that greater than 75 percent of its participant MIPS eligible clinicians would be eligible for reweighting the Promoting Interoperability performance category for the applicable performance period. (ii) If CMS approves the request for reweighting b
official document
· source cfr-2024
APM incentive payment.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (i) For payment years 2019 through 2025, CMS makes a lump sum payment to QPs in the amount described in paragraph (b) of this section in the manner described in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. (ii) [Reserved] (2) CMS provides notice of the amount of the APM Incentive Payment to QPs as soon as practicable following the calculation and validation of the APM Incentive Payment amount, but in any event no later than 1 year after the incentive payment base period. (b) (1) For payment years 2019 through 2024, the amount of the APM Incentive Payment is equal to 5 percent or, with respect to payment year 2025, 3.5 percent of the estimated aggregate payments for covered professional services as defined in section 1848(k)(3)(A) of the Act furnished during the calendar year immediately preceding the payment year. CMS uses the paid amounts on claims for covered professional services to calculate the estimated aggregate payments on which CMS will calculate the APM Incentive Payment. (2) The estimated aggregate payment amount for covered professional services includes all such payments to any and all of the TIN/NPI combinations associated with the NPI of the QP. (3) In calculating the estimated aggregate payment amount for a QP, CMS uses claims submitted with dates of service from January 1 through December 31 of the incentive payment base period, and processing dates of January 1 of the base period through March 31 of the subsequent payment year. (4) The payment adjustment amou
official document
· source cfr-2024
APM options.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (1) (i) A TEAM participant that selects the AAPM option as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) must provide their CMS electronic health record certification ID in a form and manner and by a date specified by CMS on annual basis prior to the end of each performance year. (ii) A TEAM participant that selects the AAPM option as provided for in paragraph (a)(1) must retain documentation of their attestation to CEHRT use and provide access to the documentation in accordance with § 512.586. (2) (b) (1) (i) The name, TIN, and NPI of the TEAM collaborator. (ii) The start date and, if applicable, end date, for the sharing arrangement between the TEAM participant and the TEAM collaborator. (2) (i) The name, TIN, and NPI of the collaboration agent and the name and TIN of the TEAM collaborator with which the collaboration agent has entered into a distribution arrangement. (ii) The start date and, if applicable, end date, for the distribution arrangement between the TEAM collaborator and the collaboration agent. (3) (i) The name, TIN, and NPI of the downstream collaboration agent and the name and TIN of the collaboration agent with which the downstream collaboration agent has entered into a downstream distribution arrangement. (ii) The start date and, if applicable, end date, for the downstream distribution arrangement between the collaboration agent and the downstream collaboration agent. (c) (1) For each physician, nonphysician practitioner, or therapist who is not on a TEAM participan
official document
· source cfr-2024
APM performance pathway.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (b) (1) APM Entities participate in the APM under an agreement with CMS or through a law or regulation; and (2) The APM bases payment on quality measures and cost/utilization. (c) (i) Each submitted measure that does not have a benchmark or meet the case minimum requirement is excluded from the MIPS eligible clinician, group, or APM Entity group's total measure achievement points and total available measure achievement points. (ii) Any measure that is identified as topped out is not subject to the scoring cap described at § 414.1380(b)(1)(iv). (2) (3) (4) (d) (i) Quality: 50 percent. (ii) Cost: 0 percent. (iii) Improvement Activities: 20 percent. (iv) Promoting Interoperability: 30 percent. (2) (i) If CMS reweights the quality performance category to 0 percent: Promoting Interoperability performance category is reweighted to 75 percent, and Improvement Activities performance category is reweighted to 25 percent. (ii) If CMS reweights the Promoting Interoperability performance category to 0 percent: Quality performance category is reweighted to 75 percent, and Improvement Activities performance category is reweighted to 25 percent. (e)
official document
· source cfr-2024
APM scoring standard under MIPS.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) (b) (1) APM Entities participate in the APM under an agreement with CMS or through a law or regulation; (2) The APM is designed such that APM Entities participating in the APM include at least one MIPS eligible clinician on a Participation List; (3) The APM bases payment on quality measures and cost/utilization; and (4) The APM is not either of the following: (i) (ii) (c) (d) (1) APM identifier (established for the APM by CMS); (2) APM Entity identifier (established for the APM Entity by CMS); (3) Medicare-enrolled billing TIN; and (4) Eligible clinician NPI. (e) (1) (2) For purposes of calculating the APM Entity group score under the APM scoring standard, MIPS scores submitted by virtual groups will not be included. (f) (1) If a Shared Savings Program ACO does not report data on quality measures as required by the Shared Savings Program under § 425.508 of this chapter, each ACO participant TIN will be treated as a unique APM Entity for purposes of the APM scoring standard and the ACO participant TINs may report data for the MIPS quality performance category according to the MIPS submission and reporting requirements. (2) MIPS eligible clinicians who participate in a group or have elected to participate in a virtual group and who are also on a MIPS APM Participation List will be included in the assessment under MIPS for purposes of producing a group or virtual group score and under the APM scoring standard for purposes of producing an APM Entity score. The MIPS payment ad
official document
· source cfr-2024
APS program performance.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
The State entity shall develop policies and procedures for the collection and maintenance of data on APS system response. The State entity shall: (a) Collect and report annually to ACL such APS system-wide data as required by the Assistant Secretary for Aging; and (b) Develop policies and procedures to ensure that the APS system retains individual case data obtained from APS investigations for a minimum of 5 years.
official document
· source cfr-2024
APS response.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 45
The State entity shall adopt standardized and systematic policies and procedures for APS response across and within the State including, at a minimum: (a) Screening, triaging, and decision-making criteria or protocols to review and assign adult maltreatment and self-neglect reports for APS investigation and/or to report to other authorities; (b) Tools and/or decision-making processes for APS to review reports of adult maltreatment and self-neglect for any emergency needs of the adult (c) Practices during investigations to collect information and evidence to support findings on allegations, and service planning that will: (1) Recognize that acceptance of APS services is voluntary, except where mandated by State law; (2) Ensure the safety of APS client and worker; (3) Ensure the preservation of a client's rights; (4) Integrate principles of person-directedness and trauma-informed approaches; (5) Maximize engagement with the APS client, and; (6) Permit APS the emergency use of APS funds to buy goods and services; (7) Permit APS to seek emergency protective action only as appropriate and necessary as a measure of last resort to protect the life and safety of the client. (d) Methods to make findings on allegations and record case findings, including: (1) Ability for APS programs to consult with appropriate experts, other team members, and supervisors; (2) Protocols for the standards of evidence APS should apply when making a finding on allegations. (e) Provision of and/or referral
official document
· source cfr-2024
ARC or PLC program contract.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) The following provisions apply to ARC and PLC Program contracts: (1) Eligible producers (as specified in § 1412.42) of covered commodities with base acres may enroll in ARC and PLC contracts during the enrollment period announced by FSA. (i) The 2019 contract period ends September 30, 2019. Accordingly, the enrollment for 2019 is the only program year a retroactive contract can be approved. (ii) Except as stated in this section, enrollment is not allowed after September 30 of the fiscal year in which the ARC or PLC payments are requested. FSA will not process offers of enrollment for a contract period after the contract period has ended. This is not a compliance provision but a rule of general applicability and will apply to every offer to contract in each contract year. (iii) If a 2019 farm did not have a valid election made by producers in accordance with subpart G of this part, no producer on that farm is eligible for any 2019 ARC or PLC payment for that farm. This is not an adverse decision (2) Except as specified in this section for ARC-CO and PLC enrollments, contracts will not be approved unless all producers sharing in contract acreage with more than a zero share have submitted all applicable signatures on the contract and documentation necessary for FSA to approve the contract. (i) For ARC-IC contracts there are no exceptions to this provision for signatures and documentation. (ii) A contract not having all requisite signatures of producers having more than a zer
official document
· source cfr-2024
ARC payment provisions.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 7
(a) Effective with the 2019 and subsequent crop years, ARC-CO actual crop revenue and guarantee will be based on the physical location of base acres of the farm. (1) FSA will divide up to 25 counties into administrative units. Each of the resulting administrative unit will be viewed as a county for ARC-CO payment purposes. (2) If a farm has base acres physically located in more than one physical location county, the ARC-CO actual revenue and ARC-CO guarantee will be weighted and summarized to the farm level. (3) If determined applicable by FSA, a historical irrigated percentage and trend-adjusted yield factor will be used to determine guarantee and revenue, which will also be weighted and summarized to the farm level. (b) Provided all provisions of this part, including but not limited to ARC-CO election and enrollment, have been satisfied for the contract year, CCC will issue, as applicable and consistent with the election and enrollment: (1) An ARC-CO payment beginning October 1, or as soon as practicable thereafter, after the end of the applicable marketing year for the covered commodity to the producers on a farm for a covered commodity in each crop year if the farm and covered commodity were enrolled in ARC-CO and the farm's weighted and summarized ARC-CO actual crop revenue was less than the farm's weighted and summarized ARC-CO guarantee. (2) Payment is equal to the result of multiplying the payment acres for the covered commodity times the difference between the farm's
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASC authority and functions.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 12
(a) (b) (1) Monitor the requirements established by the States for the certification and licensing of individuals who are qualified to perform appraisals in connection with federally related transactions, including a code of professional responsibility; (2) Monitor the requirements of the Federal financial institutions regulatory agency and Resolution Trust Corporation with respect to appraisal standards for federally related transactions and determinations as to which federally related transactions require the services of a State certified appraiser and which require the services of a State licensed appraiser; (3) Monitor and review the practices, procedures, activities and organizational structure of the Appraisal Foundation; and (4) Maintain a national registry of State certified and licensed appraisers eligible to perform appraisals in federally related transactions.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASC determination.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 12
(a) (b)
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASC facility services payment rate.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 42
(a) The payment rate is based on a prospectively determined standard overhead amount per procedure derived from an estimate of the costs incurred by ambulatory surgical centers generally in providing services furnished in connection with the performance of that procedure. (b) The payment must be substantially less than would have been paid under the program if the procedure had been performed on an inpatient basis in a hospital. (c) For services furnished on or after January 1, 2007, and before the effective date of implementation of a revised payment system, the ASC payment rate for a surgical procedure is the
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASF factors.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 12
(a) (1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or (2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty. (b) (1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held (2) A sweep deposit that: (i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a controlled subsidiary; (ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and (iii) The national bank or Federal savings association demonstrates to the satisfaction of the OCC that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event. (c) (1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit; (2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; (3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASF factors.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 12
(a) (1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or (2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty. (b) (1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held at the Board-regulated institution; or (2) A sweep deposit that: (i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a controlled subsidiary; (ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and (iii) The Board-regulated institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event. (c) (1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit; (2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; (3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of wh
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASF factors.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 12
(a) (1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or (2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty. (b) (1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held at the FDIC-supervised institution; or (2) A sweep deposit that: (i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled (ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and (iii) The FDIC-supervised institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FDIC that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event. (c) (1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit; (2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; (3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a controlled subsidiary, where the sweep deposit does not meet the requ
official document
· source cfr-2024
ASTM standard.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 46
The following standard of the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) is incorporated by reference into this subpart: ASTM D 1435-94, Standard Practice for Outdoor Weathering of Plastics. You may obtain this standard from the Society at 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ATC clearance and flight plan required.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 14
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has— (a) Filed an IFR flight plan; and (b) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ATC light signals.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 14
ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:
official document
· source cfr-2024
ATC notification for all launches.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 14
No person may operate an unmanned rocket other than a Class 1—Model Rocket unless that person gives the following information to the FAA ATC facility nearest to the place of intended operation no less than 24 hours before and no more than three days before beginning the operation: (a) The name and address of the operator; except when there are multiple participants at a single event, the name and address of the person so designated as the event launch coordinator, whose duties include coordination of the required launch data estimates and coordinating the launch event; (b) Date and time the activity will begin; (c) Radius of the affected area on the ground in nautical miles; (d) Location of the center of the affected area in latitude and longitude coordinates; (e) Highest affected altitude; (f) Duration of the activity; (g) Any other pertinent information requested by the ATC facility.
official document
· source cfr-2024
ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
CFR · 2024-01-01
· US
· Title 14
(a) (b) (1) (2) (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part provided such operations are conducted— (i) Outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (ii) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower; and (4) All aircraft in all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; and (5) All aircraft except any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider— (i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface; and (ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 10-nautical-mile radius of any airport listed in appendix D, section 2 of this part, excluding the airspace below 1,200 feet outside of the lateral boundaries of the surface area of the airspace designated for that airport. (c) (d) (1) For
official document
· source cfr-2024